Piper Seneca III PA-34 220T

Training Handout : Comprehensive Q&A Bank

Welcome to the ultimate Piper Seneca III PA-34 220T training handout and comprehensive question bank. This syllabus-aligned study guide features 80+ detailed technical questions and answers meticulously drafted for student pilots, commercial pilot license (CPL) candidates, and aviation professionals preparing for their institutional or DGCA technical general examinations. Use these structured notes to master critical limitations, aircraft systems, and operational procedures with absolute confidence.

Q1: The correct statement about Combustion Heater is:-
A: In the event of Combustion Heater overheat, the fuel, air and ignition to the Heater is automatically cut off.

Q2: What are the engine controls?
A: Throttle lever, Mixture control lever and Propeller control lever

Q3: The vacuum system is:
A: One vacuum pump for each engine, plumbing and regulating equipment.

Q4: What is the one engine inoperative best rate of climb speed?
A: 92 KTS (called VYSE)

Q5: The speed at which maximum height is gained for a given distance travelled is called:-
A: Best angle of climb speed(VX).

Q6: What is used for moving the propeller from un-feather (fine) to feather (coarse)?
A: Nitrogen

Q7: When does stall warning sound?
A: 5 to 10 knots before the actual stall and mild airframe buffeting and gentle pitching may precede the stall.

Q8: The design maneuvering speed is:
A: 140 KIAS and it decreases with lighter weight of the aircraft.

Q9: In case of engine failure during take-off, speed more than 85 KTS and there is insufficient runway to stop, the pilot should:-
A: Maintain directional control, close throttle immediately, land if airborne, stop straight ahead, and apply brakes as required.

Q10: Which of the following is incorrect?
A: The propeller can be feathered only while engine is rotating above 600 RPM.

Q11: The normal CHT range is:
A: 240° to 460° F

Q12: What happens by pulling the emergency gear extension knob?
A: Releases hydraulic pressure.

Q13: The Fuel selector during single engine operations should be:-
A: Selector for operating engine: X-FEED Selector for inoperative engine: OFF

Q14: The type of engine is:-
A: Six cylinders, direct drive, horizontally opposed, air cooled

Q15: Normal take-off procedure is:
A: RPM 2800 before releasing brakes that is less than full throttle, 40″of Hg ΜΑΡ.

Q16: What is the usable fuel tank capacity of the standard tank?
A: 93 US Gallons

Q17: Yellow arc signifies:-
A: Caution range of speed (may be used in smooth air only)

Q18: How is alternate air obtained for engine?
A: Automatic alternate air door opens if primary air source is blocked but alternate air is unfiltered and should not be used for ground operations.

Q19: Nose landing gear extension and down locking is assisted by:
A: Aerodynamic load and springs.

Q20: The datum is:-
A: 78.4″ ahead of wing leading edge at the inboard edge of inboard fuel tank.

Q21: Engine operating limits are:
A: 40″ Hg MAP/2800 RPM/220 BHP for 5 minutes.

Q22: The one engine inoperative air minimum control speed (VMCA) is:
A: 66 KIAS

Q23: The corrected noise level with two blade-propeller and with three blade-propeller respectively is:-
A: 71.4 dB(A) and 74.2 dB(A)

Q24: The landing gear is held in retracted position by:-
A: Hydraulic pressure

Q25: How is the aircraft towed?
A: Towing can be done using nose wheel steering bar which is stowed in the baggage compartment or by power equipment that will not damage or excessively strain the nose gear steering assembly. Do not tow aeroplane when controls are secured.

Q26: Action in case of engine failure during take-off when speed is 82 KTS and insufficient runway available to stop:
A: Close throttle immediately, apply maximum brakes, switch off battery, switch off fuel selector and continue straight ahead to stop.

Q27: Maximum drop allowed during feathering check is:
A: 300 RPM.

Q28: The main gear tyre pressure is:
A: 55 PSI

Q29: Continuous ground operation limitation above 32″ of Hg is:
A: Between 2000 and 2200 RPM avoid continuous ground operation (for 2 blade propeller only) above manifold pressure 32″ of Hg.

Q30: Lower red radial line signifies:-
A: One engine inoperative air minimum control speed (VMCA) and it is 66 KIAS

Q31: Nose landing gear is steerable:
A: 27° either side of centre.

Q32: Auxiliary fuel pump is provided to:
A: Supply fuel in case of failure of engine driven pump and for vapour suppression.

Q33: The engine prime time is:-
A: 3 seconds and it varies according to ambient temperature

Q34: Upper red radial line signifies:-
A: Never exceed speed (VNE) 205 KIAS

Q35: What is the type of alternator?
A: 2 x 28 Volt 60 Amperes

Q36: What will happen to landing gear in case of hydraulic failure?
A: Landing gear will free fall.

Q37: The power loading is:
A: 10.8 Lbs/ HP

Q38: What is the one engine inoperative air minimum control speed?
A: 66 KTS (called VMCA)

Q39: The type of brake system used is:-
A: Separate hydraulic reservoir, 2 single disc, double puck brake assemblies, one on each main gear.

Q40: Maximum landing weight is:-
A: 4513 Lbs.

Q41: Can the alternate air be used on ground?
A: Alternate air should not be used on ground.

Q42: The maximum landing gear extended speed (VLE) is:
A: 130 KIAS

Q43: What type of trim tab is provided in the stabilator?
A: The stabilator incorporates an anti-servo tab that moves in the same direction as the stabilator.

Q44: Yellow arc on tachometer indicates:
A: 2600 to 2800 RPM (take-off RPM for 5 minutes).

Q45: What is the type of battery?
A: 24 Volt, 65 Amp (19 AH)

/ Q46: Ground check of pitot heat must be limited to:-
A: 3 minutes.

Q47: The maximum take-off RPM is:
A: 2800 RPM for 5 minutes

/ Q48: Oil viscosity recommended is:-
A: Below 40° F: 1065 (Aviation grade), SAE 30 Above 40° F: 1100 (Aviation grade), SAE 50

Q49: Action to be taken in case of propeller over speed (caused by propeller governor malfunction) which allows the propeller blades to rotate at full low pitch is:
A: Reduce throttle, propeller to full decrease RPM(do not feather), check for control availability, reduce airspeed and throttle to maintain 2600 RPM.

Q50: How to execute manual extension of landing gear in flight?
A: Maintain speed below 85 KIAS, landing gear selector switch to gear down and pull the emergency gear extension knob.

Q51: What is the altitude limit for operation of Combustion Heater?
A: Operation of Combustion Heater above 25000 feet is not approved.

Q52: Oxygen system malfunction is indicated by:
A: Red pellets are visible.

Q53: The centre of gravity (rearward) limit for 3400 Kg is:
A: 94.6″

Q54: The type of stall warning is:-
A: Continuous horn. It is different from the landing gear warning horn which beeps at 90 cycles/second

Q55: The maximum flaps extended speed (VFE) is:
A: 115 KIAS

Q56: What is the feathering procedure:
A: Throttle-retard to verify, propeller- feather at more than 800 RPM, mixture- idle cutoff, cowl flaps- close, alternator- off, fuel selector- off, electrical load- reduce and cross feed- as required.

Q57: Action in case of engine failure in flight when speed is below 66 KTS:
A: Apply rudder towards operative engine to maintain directional control and throttle should be retarded to stop yaw forces produced by inoperative engine.

Q58: From which drain point is contaminated fuel drained?
A: The drains in each gascolator, the cross feed drains and fuel quick drains.

Q59: when does LO BUS voltage annunciator illuminate?
A: Any time total BUS voltage falls below approximately 25 volt DC.

Q60: In the event of propeller over speed, a pilot should:
A: Retard throttle to full aft and also move the propeller control to full decrease RPM

Q61: Blue radial line signifies:-
A: One engine inoperative best rate of climb speed (VYSE) 92 KIAS.

Q62: Relationship of prime time and ambient temperature is:
A: Prime time increases if ambient temperature decreases.

Q63: The maximum structural cruising speed (VNO) is:
A: 166 KIAS

Q64: Basic empty weight is:
A: The standard empty weight plus optional equipment. In other words the basic empty weight is the aircraft weight plus unusable fuel plus full oil plus unusable fluids

Q65: When will the landing gear warning sound?
A: At low throttle setting when gear is not down and locked.

Q66: How many Fuel Tank Vents are provided?
A: Two Fuel Tank Vents one under each wing.

Q67: If both suction pumps fail:-
A: Artificial horizon and directional gyro will not work, turn indicator will work and de-icing boots will not work.

Q68: What should be the immediate action to recover from an unintentional spin?
A: Retard throttle to idle, apply full opposite rudder, control wheel forward and aileron neutral.

Q69: How is the magnetic drop carried out:-
A: At 2000 RPM, maximum drop 150 RPM, maximum difference 50 RPM

Q70: What is the propeller setting on final?
A: Full forward for a possible go around.

Q71: The maximum landing gear operating speed (VLO) is:
A: Extension:130 KIAS, Retraction: 108 KIAS

Q72: Propeller setting for taxi is:
A: High RPM low pitch.

Q73: Hydraulic pressure for the landing gear is provided by:-
A: Electrically powered, reversible hydraulic pump.

Q74: Flap position for short-field take-off is:
A: 25°.

Q75: The propeller type is:-
A: Three blade, constant speed, hydraulically activated, controllable pitch and full feathering Mc Cauley, directly connected to crank shaft.

Q76: The nose gear tyre pressure is:
A: 40 PSI

/ Q77: Continuous ground operation limitation in X-wind and tail wind over 10 KTS is:
A: Between 1700 and 2100 RPM avoid continuous ground operation in X-wind and tail wind over 10 KTS.

Q78: The type of air filter used is:-
A: Paper element type.

Q79: What is the total fuel tank capacity of the standard tank?
A: 98 US Gallons

Q80: Shimming of nose landing gear is prevented by:-
A: Centering spring.

Q81: Minimum steady flight speed at which aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is called:-
A: Stall speed VSO.

Q82: The starter cranking is limited to:-
A: 30 seconds.

Q83: Emergency gear extension is aided by:
A: Aerodynamic forces and springs.

Q84: One engine failure can be identified by:
A: Loss of thrust and yawing towards inoperative engine.

Q85: The normal EGT range is:
A: 1200° to 1525° F

Q86: The never exceed speed (VNE) is:
A: 205 KIAS

Q87: What is used for moving the propeller from feather (coarse) to un-feather (fine)?
A: Oil pressure

Q88: The purpose of Squat Switch in landing gear is:-
A: To prevent gear retraction on ground. It is located in left main gear.

Q89: The wing loading is:-
A: 22.8 Lbs/Sq Ft