PA-34 220T

Correct answer is – 500 RPM to 2600 RPM

Correct answer is – Recycle the landing gear. Explanation: Continued illumination may indicate an abnormal gear position or malfunction. The POH recommends recycling the landing gear to obtain a proper indication.

Correct answer is – 30 seconds

Correct answer is – Hartzell

Correct answer is – Battery, ignition switches, and fuel selector valve controls. Explanation: Securing electrical power and fuel supply reduces the risk of fire following a gear-up landing.

Correct answer is – During ground operations and takeoffs (Alternate air is unfiltered and may allow dust, dirt, and debris to enter the engine. Therefore, the primary filtered air source must always be used during takeoffs and ground operations.)

Correct answer is – All of the above are correct.

Correct answer is – 76 inches

Correct answer is – Springs

Correct answer is – Retard the throttle to idle position, then apply full opposite rudder

Correct answer is – Pushing the parking brake handle forward and tapping the toe brakes

Correct answer is – 28 Volts, 60 amps

Correct answer is – Fuel Flow, EGT, and Oil Pressure on the suspected engine.

Correct answer is – 98 US Gallons , with optional tank 128 USG

Correct answer is – Prevents gear retraction on the ground and in left gear.

Correct answer is – 22.8 lbs per sqft

Correct answer is – 85 KIAS. Explanation: The POH directs the pilot to reduce power and maintain an airspeed below 85 KIAS before initiating manual gear extension.

Correct answer is – The selector for the operating engine should be on X-feed, and the selector for the inoperative engine should be set to OFF.

Correct answer is – Below 40°F – Aviation Grade 1065, S.A.E. No. 30

Correct answer is – 1700 and 2100 RPM

Correct answer is – When the landing gear is in transit between the UP and DOWN & LOCKED positions, or when the gear warning horn sounds. Explanation: The red warning light indicates that the landing gear is not safely locked in either position. It also illuminates whenever the gear warning horn is activated.

Correct answer is – Aviation Grade 1065, S.A.E. No. 30

Correct answer is – 3.5 PSI to 18.1 PSI

Correct answer is – When the landing gear is not down and locked at low throttle settings. Explanation: The warning horn alerts the pilot to a potential gear-up landing by sounding whenever throttle settings are reduced and the gear is not down and locked.

Correct answer is – 2800 for 5minutes

Correct answer is – Improves longitudinal stability and provides longitudinal trim

Correct answer is – Paper element.

Correct answer is – Just before touchdown. Explanation: Keeping some power during the approach aids control, but throttles should be closed immediately before touchdown to minimize damage and landing distance.

Correct answer is – Operation of the combustion heater above 25,000 feet is not approved.

Correct answer is – 1200°F – 1525°F

Correct answer is – 100°F to 240°F

Correct answer is – 240°F to 460°F

Correct answer is – McCauley

Correct answer is – Select between filtered primary air and alternate air. (The two-way valve allows the pilot to select either filtered induction air or alternate air that bypasses the filter and is routed directly to the turbocharger.)

Correct answer is – Between 2000 and 2200 RPM avoid continuous ground operation (for 2 blade propeller only) above manifold pressure 32″ of Hg.

Correct answer is – Spring

Correct answer is – Loss of thrust and yawing towards the inoperative engine. (The pilot applies rudder towards the operating engine to maintain directional control. The foot not applying pressure indicates the failed engine.)

Correct answer is – Aviation Grade 1100, S.A.E. No. 50

Correct answer is – All are correct

Correct answer is – Popped circuit breakers, battery switch ON, and alternators. Explanation: Before selecting manual extension, the pilot should verify that electrical power is available and that no circuit breaker has opened inadvertently.

Correct answer is – 13.5° arc by combination of full rudder and brake on either side, or 27° arc fully.

Correct answer is – Three-blade, constant speed, controllable pitch, and feathering McCauley, directly connected to the crankshaft.

Correct answer is – Hydraulic pressure.

Correct answer is – 5 to 10 knots before the actual stall and mild airframe buffeting and gentle pitching may precede the stall.

Correct answer is – 3.5 PSI to 18.1 PSI

Correct answer is – 100 or 100LL Aviation Grade

Correct answer is – 93 US Gallons without optional Tanks, with optional tank 123

Correct answer is – Fuel drains are provided for each fuel filter, each fuel tank, and each crossfeed line. (The aircraft is equipped with fuel drains for each fuel filter (2), each fuel tank (4), and each crossfeed line (2) to ensure proper fuel system inspection and contamination removal before flight.)

Correct answer is – All of the above ( Engine controls consist of a throttle, a propeller control and a mixture control lever for each engine. These controls are located on the control quadrant on the lower center of the instrument panel where they are accessible to both the pilot and the copilot. The controls utilize teflon-lined control cables to reduce friction and binding. )

Correct answer is – Nitrogen

Correct answer is – 3 seconds (according to ambient temperature)

Correct answer is – Takeoff – 5 Min. range

Correct answer is – It is unfiltered and heated. (Alternate air bypasses the intake filter and is heated before entering the turbocharger, providing protection against induction icing but not filtration.)

Correct answer is – 24 Volts; 65 Amps (19 Amp-Hours)

Correct answer is – An anti-servo tab on the rudder

Correct answer is – Electrically powered, reversible hydraulic pump.

Correct answer is – 2800 RPM

Correct answer is – Retard the throttle to full aft and also move the prop control to full decrease RPM.

Correct answer is – 2000 RPM, max drop 150 RPM, and the max difference in drops shall not exceed 50 RPM.

Correct answer is – Same direction with increased travel

Correct answer is – 460°F

Correct answer is – 240°F

Correct answer is – 2800 RPM

Correct answer is – Both are correct ( In the event of an overheat condition, the fuel, air and ignition to the heater is automatically cut off. Do not attempt to restart the heater until it has been inspected and the cause of the malfunction has been determined and corrected )

Correct answer is – 460°F

Correct answer is – The automatic alternate air door opens if the primary air source is blocked, but the alternate air is unfiltered and should not be used for ground operations.

Correct answer is – 21.0 PSI

Correct answer is – To remove moisture or sediment and check for proper fuel (Fuel drains are provided to remove any accumulated water, sediment, or contamination from the fuel system and to verify that the correct fuel is present before flight.)

Correct answer is – 10.8 lbs per hp

Correct answer is – 18.1 PSI to 21.0 PSI

Correct answer is – 2000 and 2200 RPM

Correct answer is – Two-blade constant speed

Correct answer is – Maintain speed below 85 KIAS, set the landing gear selector switch to gear down, and pull the emergency gear extension knob.

Correct answer is – Oil pressure

Correct answer is – Both gascolator quick drains and crossfeed line drains (Water and sediment can accumulate in the gascolators and crossfeed lines; therefore, both locations must be checked and drained during preflight.)

Correct answer is – 55/40

Correct answer is – Three blades

Correct answer is – 6 cylinders, Direct Drive, Horizontally opposed, Aircooled

Correct answer is – NO

Correct answer is – 460°F

Correct answer is – 75 inches

Correct answer is – Leave it in the extended position until maintenance inspection. Explanation: The POH warns that the control should remain extended until the aircraft has been placed on jacks and the hydraulic and electrical systems have been inspected.

Max Oil Temperature 240°F

Correct answer is – The foot that does not need rudder pressure corresponds to the failed engine. (Constant-speed propellers may maintain RPM after a power loss. Fuel Flow, EGT, and Oil Pressure provide a more reliable indication of the failed engine.)

Correct answer is – An automatic alternate air door opens to ensure continuous induction airflow. (The system includes an automatic alternate air door that opens whenever the primary air source is blocked, ensuring a continuous supply of induction air to the engine.)

Correct answer is – Anti-servo tab

Correct answer is – Three green indicator lights. Explanation: Three green lights confirm that the nose gear and both main landing gears are down and locked.

Correct answer is – At the lowest point in the fuel system on the underside of the fuselage, just inboard of the trailing edge of the right wing flap (The crossfeed drains are positioned at the lowest point of the fuel system to allow effective draining of contaminants and water from the crossfeed lines.)

Correct answer is – Place the landing gear selector in GEAR DOWN and pull the emergency gear extension knob. Explanation: Manual extension requires the selector to be in the DOWN position followed by pulling the emergency extension knob and confirming three green lights.

Correct answer is – 200 BHP

Correct answer is – a and b

Correct answer is – The alternate air bypasses the filter and is heated before reaching the turbocharger. (Heated alternate air melts accumulated ice, snow, or freezing rain and prevents blockage of the engine induction system.)

Correct answer is – Close throttle immediately. Apply maximum brakes. Turn off battery. Turn off fuel selector. Continue stopping straight ahead.

Correct answer is – Hydraulically actuated, single-disc, double-puck brake assemblies

Correct answer is – (Caused by propeller governor malfunction & allows the propeller to rotate at full low pitch) Reduce throttle; Move the propeller control to full decrease RPM (do not feather); Check for control availability; Then reduce airspeed; Adjust throttle to maintain 2600 RPM