Results
Q1. When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant mach number?
Correct answer is – CAS decreases.
Q2. VLE is the :
Q3. The density altitude is?
Correct answer is – The altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of the atmosphere.
Q4. What are indicated by the lower and upper end of the white arc on an ASI?
VSO and VFE.
Q5. When turning from SE to SW at 50 degrees north, the roll out should occur at?
Correct answer is – 245 degrees.
Q6. How will a Mach meter indication respond if an aircraft is flying at constant CAS at FL270 when it experiences a reduction in OAT?
Correct answer is – No change.
Q7. At a fixed pressure altitude an increase in temperature will ?
Correct answer is – Decrease density but increase density altitude.
Q8. When turning right through 90 degrees to north, in the northern hemisphere, roll out should be conducted on a heading of?
Correct answer is – 340 degrees.
Q9. Aircraft attitude is indicated on?
Correct answer is – EFIS PFD.
Q10. In a chart if meridians and parallels of Lat. cut each other at right angles and the scale in the immediate vicinity of the point are correct, the chart is said to be:
Correct answer is – Orthomorphic projection.
Q11. An island is observed to be 15° to the left. The aircraft heading is 120°(M), variation 17°(W). The bearing (°T) from the aircraft to the island is:
Correct answer is – 088
Q12. The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM represents a width of:
Q13. 5 NM or 1 minute of difference in longitude at:
Correct answer is – 60°N
Q14. Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the airplane’s maximum range), the traffic load is normally limited by:
On long-distance flights at maximum range, the traffic load is normally limited by the Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW). Maximum range you will take more fuel , you will be already below the MZFM.
Q15. On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a:
Correct answer is – straight line
Q16. The maximum certificated taxi (or ramp) mass is that mass to which an aero plane may be loaded prior to engine start. It is :
Correct answer is – a fixed value which is listed in the flight manual
Q17. When descending from FL400 and attempting to maintain maximum airspeed, airspeed will be limited by?
Correct answer is – MMO then VMO.
Q18. An advantage of VHF as compared to low frequency radio is:
Correct answer is – Reduction of static interference
Q19. The coordinates of the heliport at Issy les Moulineaux are N48° 50′ E002° 16.5′, the coordinates of the antipodes are?
Correct answer is – S48° 50′ W177° 43.5′
Q20. If the port static vent of a large aircraft is blocked, what will happen to the VSI indications when it is side slipping at a constant rate to the left in a descent?
Needle Oscillate
Q21. What will happen to altimeter indication if an aircraft in level flight attitude enters a cold front?
Correct answer is – Under indication.
Q22. The sensitivity of a magnetic compass can be affected by?
Correct answer is – Both of the above. ( it is directly proportional of Horizontal component and inversely proportional to vertical)
Q23. Radio Waves are coming from the land to sea the waves will bend
Correct answer is – Away from normal
Q24. For an aircraft at a height of 1500 feet, interception of a 3° ILS glide path will occur at approximately:
Correct answer is – 5.0 nm from the threshold.
Q25. A/C is on 100° (M) Brg from NDB, in order to intercept 110° Brg line from the NDB and direction of turn
Correct answer is – Right 130°
turn right — because 110 outbound is 10 degree right of 100 outbound
intercept angle = 2 x 10 = 20 = approx. 30.
tack to intercept = 100 + 30 right = 130.
Q26. What should the VSI indicate when an aircraft on a 3 degree glide slope is flying at 100 kts TAS?
Q27. With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent at?
Q28. During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the rectifying principle of the artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating?
Correct answer is – Nose-up attitude.
Q29. Magnetic track = 210°, Magnetic HDG = 215°, VAR = 15°E, TAS = 360 kt Aircraft flies 64 NM in 12 MIN. Calculate the W/V?
Correct answer is – 264/50 kt.
Q30. The turn indicator is affected by? 1. AOB 2. Airspeed 3. Weight. 4. Altitude.
Correct answer is – 1, 2.
Q31. Which one of the following describes the appearance of rhumb lines, except meridians, on a polar stereographic chart?
Correct answer is – Curves concave to the pole.
Q32. A flight has been made from London to Valencia carrying minimum fuel and maximum traffic load. On the return flight the fuel tanks in the aeroplane are to be filled to capacity with a total fuel load of 20100 litres at a fuel density of 0.79 kg/l. The following are the aeroplane’s structural limits: Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg, Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg, Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg The performance limited take off mass at Valencia is 67 330 kg. The landing mass at London is not performance limited. Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kg, Trip Fuel (Valencia to London): 5 990 kg Taxi fuel: 250 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried from Valencia will be:
Q33. The local speed of sound is?
Correct answer is – 583 Kts.
Q34. TAS = 270 kt, true HDG = 270°, actual wind 205°(T)/30kt, Calculate the drift angle and GS?
Correct answer is – 6R – 259kt.
Q35. A/C approaching to NDB heading 240°, ADF reads 000°, A/C maintains heading but drifted to the left. ADF reading will be:
Correct answer is – > 000°
Q36. Increase of 0.15 in mach number results in an increase of 93 Kts TAS. If temperature is ISA – 9°C, the FL is?
Correct answer is – FL130.
Solution:
Use wind correction mode:
PALT = 13000
OAT = (-11) -9= (-20)
M= 0.15
will give TAS = 93kts.
Q37. Distance ‘A’ to ‘B’ 3600 NM, Groundspeed ‘out’ 378 kt, Groundspeed ‘back’ 400 kt. The time from ‘A’ to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between ‘A’ and ‘B’ is?
Q38. In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:
Q39. when turning through 90° at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic artificial horizon indicate?
Correct answer is – Too much nose up and too little bank angle.
Q40. What does the blue line on a twin engine piston aircraft ASI indicate?
Correct answer is – VYSE.
Q41. Aero plane loading: A) must be performed under the supervision of qualified personnel B) must be consistent with the data used for calculating the mass and balance C) must comply with compartment dimension limitations D) must comply with the maximum load per running meter E) must comply with the maximum mass per cargo compartment
Correct answer is – A, B, C, D and E only
Q42. An aircraft is on an ILS 3 degree glide slope, which passes over the runway threshold at a height of 50 feet. The DME range is 15 nm from the threshold. What is the height above the runway threshold elevation? (Use the 1 in 60 rule and the approximation 6000 feet = 1 nautical mile)
Correct answer is – 4550 feet.
Q43. The degrees of freedom of a gyro are determined by the number of gimbal rings it comprises. Among the flight control instruments, the artificial horizon plays an essential part. It uses a gyroscope with?
Correct answer is – Two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and continuously maintained to local vertical by an automatic erecting system.
Q44. Dry Operating Mass = 29 800 kg. Maximum Take-Off Mass = 52 400 kg Maximum Zero-Fuel Mass = 43 100 kg, Maximum Landing Mass = 46 700 kg Trip fuel = 4 000 kg. Fuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kg The maximum traffic load is:
Correct answer is – 12 900 kg
Q45. When 95 nm from a VOR you commence a descent from FL 330 with the intention of arriving at the VOR at FL 100. What rate of descent is required if your mean ground speed is 250 knots?
Correct answer is – 1010 ft/min.
Q46. The response rate of a VSI can be improved by fitting a?
Q47. What would happen if the static pipe became detached from the back of a mach meter in a pressurised aircraft at high altitude?
Correct answer is – Under read , as PD decreases, Ps increases.
Q48. The datum used for measuring True directions is
North
Q49. What will happen to the altimeter reading in a right sideslip, if an aircraft has a static vent at each side of the fuselage, but the left one is blocked?
Correct answer is – Under read.
Q50. The ball in a serviceable slip indicator is ……..by ……..and …….. indicates the state of slip?
Correct answer is – Positioned / Acceleration / Does not always.
Q51. Distance ‘Q’ to ‘R’ 1760 NM, Groundspeed ‘out’ 450 kt, Groundspeed ‘back’ 360 kt. The time from ‘Q’ to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between ‘Q’ and ‘R’ is?
Q52. You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC?
Correct answer is – 30 mins
Q53. Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at which the mass is located. That point is known as
Correct answer is – the datum
Q54. If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the flight plan, he must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination aerodrome is informed within a certain number of minutes of his planned ETA at destination. The number of minutes is
Correct answer is – 30
Q55. The second segment of take-off flight path begins
Correct answer is – when landing gear is fully retracted
Q56. An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation tones from both the localiser and glide path transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
Q57. The vectors of a triangle that are resolved by computer to determine course and G/S are:
Hdg & TAS, Tr & G/S, wind direction and speed
Q58. At 80 nm from a VOR an aircraft commences a descent from FL330 in order to arrive overhead the VOR at FL100. What rate of descent is required if the mean groundspeed in the descent is to be 240 knots?
Q59. The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration, is due to the?
Correct answer is – The inclination of the ecliptic to the Equator.
Q60. What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?
Correct answer is – 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centreline
Q61. Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°-From/To indicator indicates “TO”. CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft?
Q62. The operating frequency range of a altitude radio altimeter is?
Correct answer is – 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.
Q63. A slaved directional gyro derives it’s directional signal from?
Correct answer is – The flux valve.
Q64. The purpose of creating network of latitudes and longitudes is
Correct answer is – for pinpointing positions on the Earth
Q65. In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main landing gear wheels are on the ground. For this, it is necessary to?
Q66. Traffic load is the:
Correct answer is – zero fuel mass minus dry operating mass.
Q67. ROT indications depend on? 1. Airspeed. 2. Mass. 3. AOB
Q68. A mach meter comprises of?
Correct answer is – A combination of ASI and altimeter capsules
Q69. Distance ‘A’ to ‘B’ 2900 NM, Groundspeed ‘out’ 420 kt, Groundspeed ‘back’ 480 kt. Safe endurance is 8 Hr 30 Min. The time from ‘A’ to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) ‘A’ is?
Q70. Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
Correct answer is – signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces ( deflected by electrical axis of aircraft)
Q71. During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot that indicated airspeed?
Q72. During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS)?
Correct answer is – The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases.
Q73. When cruising on a westerly heading ( unacclerated flight) a direct reading magnetic compass will indicate?
Correct answer is – No turn.
Q74. The position of an aircraft that it would reach if it were flown in conditions of no wind is known as:
Just memorise ( Do not try to find logic)
Q75. Course 095°(T), TAS is 220 kt, wind speed 70 kt. Maximum drift angle will be obtained for a wind direction of:
Q76. An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads : 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are?
Correct answer is – left with “TO” showing
Q77. TAS = 135 kt, HDG (T) = 278°, W/V = 140/20kt Calculate the Track (T) and GS?
Correct answer is – 284 – 150 kt.
Q78. When descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?
Correct answer is – LSS remains constant.
Q79. What will happen to the altimeter indications in an aircraft in level flight if the right static vent becomes blocked and the left remains clear?
Correct answer is – Over indicate when side slipping right.
Q80. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 12% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 375 knots?
Q81. Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are?
Correct answer is – Rhumb lines.( EXCEPT EQUATOR rl, WITH EQUATOR RL AND GC BOTH)
Q82. A radio altimeter can be defined as a:
Q83. Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 68000 kg, Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 70200 kg Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 78200 kg Dry Operating Mass: 48000 kg Scheduled trip fuel is 7000 kg and the reserve fuel is 2800 kg. Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively:
Q84. What is the LSS at MSL ISA?
Correct answer is – 661 Kts.
Q85. The correct turn and slip indications when turning right on the ground are?
Q86. A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the call sign. Having heard the same call sign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
Correct answer is – DME call sign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once
Q87. An aircraft was over ‘Q’ at 1320 hours flying direct to ‘R’. Distance ‘Q’ to ‘R’ 3016 NM, True airspeed 480 kt Mean wind component ‘out’ -90 kt, Mean wind component ‘back’ +75 kt Safe endurance 10:00 hr The distance from ‘Q’ to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) ‘Q’ is:
Correct answer is – 2290 nm
Q88. The scale on a Lambert conformal conic chart:
Correct answer is – is constant along a parallel of latitude
Q89. As an aircraft moves close to the ground during a landing the VSI might?
Correct answer is – Become inaccurate due to ground effect.
Q90. On 4 February the air almanac lists 1941 as the time of sunset at 5000S. An observer registers sunset at 2113 UTC this day. What is the observer’s position?
Correct answer is – 5000S 02300W. ( Almanac DATA is LMT, UTC is 1 hrs 32 minute ahead, so longitude is ( 01hrs 32 min x 15 ) 023 west
Q91. Magnetic heading 280°, VOR radial 090°. What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a “TO” indication?
Correct answer is – 270°
Q92. The angle between magnetic north and compass north is called:
Correct answer is – compass deviation
Q93. A positive (easterly) magnetic variation signifies that?
Correct answer is – True North is West of Magnetic North. ( MN is Est of TN)
Q94. On a Lambert Conformal conic chart great circle that are not meridians are?
Correct answer is – Curves concave to the parallel of origin. ( apporxt GC if close to prallel of origin)
Q95. How will mach meter indication vary in a constant CAS climb?
Correct answer is – Increase.
Q96. In calculations with respect to the position of the center of gravity a reference is made to a datum. The datum is
Correct answer is – a reference plane which is chosen by the aeroplane manufacturer. Its position is given in the aero plane Flight or Loading Manual
Q97. In order to fly from A (10° 00’N, 030° 00’W) to position B (30° 00’N, 050° 00’W), maintaining a constant true course, it is necessary to fly?
Correct answer is – A rhumb line track. ( constant track)
Q98. Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment?
Correct answer is – The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied ( In aviation, the maximum acceleration height is determined by the regulatory minimum of 400 feet above the takeoff surface and the engine thrust limitations. Specifically, it is constrained by the requirement to achieve a specific climb gradient (1.2% for two-engine, 1.7% for four-engine aircraft) while transitioning from Maximum Takeoff Thrust (time-limited to 10 minutes) to Maximum Continuous Thrust.
