Results
Q1. When completing an ATS flight plan, an elapsed time (Item 16) of 1 hour 55minutes should be entered as :
Correct answer is B – 0155
Q2. item 19 of the ICAO flight plan, endurance is?
Correct answer is C – fuel endurance of the aircraft.
Q3. ***During an IFR flight TAS and Time appear to deviate from the data in flight plan. The minimum deviations, that should be reported to ATC in order to conform to PANS-RAC, are
Correct answer is B – TAS 5 % and Time 3 minutes.
Q4. When filing the flight plan, wake turbulence category is the function of ?
Correct answer is D – Maximum certified takeoff mass.
Q5. In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet would be entered as :
Correct answer is A – F320
Q6. ** For the purpose of item 9 ( wake turbulence category ) of the ATS flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum certified take off mass of 62,000 kg is:
Correct answer is A – M
Q7. ** An aircraft has Maximum certified takeoff mass: 137 000 kg, Actual Takeoff mass: 115 000 kg. Which wake turbulence category should be entered in item 9 of the ATS flight plan?
Correct answer is C – H
Q8. *** In the ATS flight plan Item 15, it is necessary to enter any point which a change of cruising speed take place. for this purpose a change of speed is defined as:
Correct answer is D – 5% TAS or Mach 0.01 or more.
Q9. When completing an ATS flight plan for a European destination, clock time are to be expressed in :
Correct answer is C – UTC
Q10. On ATC flight Plan the letter Y is used to indicate that the flight is carried out under the following flight rules:
Correct answer is A – IFR followed by VFR
Q11. An aeroplane is flying from an airport to another. In cruise, the calibrated airspeed is 150kt, true airspeed 180 kt, average groundspeed 210 kt, the speed box on the filed flight plan shall be filled as follows:
Correct answer is C – N0180
Q12. An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular height rules on a course of 180 degrees magnetic is:
Correct answer is B – FL100
Q13. On the ATC flight Plan , to indicate that you will overfly the way point ROMEO at 120 kts at flight level 085, you will write:
Correct answer is C – ROMEO / N0120 F085
Q14. An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at 1215 UTC. In the ATS flight plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with :
Correct answer is B – EDDM 0215
Q15. For an IFR flight using ICAO semi-circular cruising levels on a magnetic track of 200, which is a suitable level?
Correct answer is C – FL310 marked in question bank ( memorize it )
Q16. In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is expressed as :
Correct answer is B – TAS
Q17. ** In the ATS flight plan Item 19, if the number of passengers to be carried is not known when the plan is ready for filling:
Correct answer is C – “TBN” may be entered in the relevant box.
Q18. In the ATS flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which standard departure (SID) and standard arrival (STAR) procedures exist :
Correct answer is A – both should be entered in the ATS plan where appropriate
Q19. On a VFR flight plan, the Total estimated time is:
Correct answer is A – the estimated time from takeoff to overhead the destination airport.
Q20. An aircraft is airborne from an airfield, elevation1560ft amsl, on a QNH of 986mb/hPa. On its track of 269°(M) there is a mountain 12090ft amsl. To clear this obstacle by a minimum of 2000ft its correct ICAO VFR Flight level is: (1mb/hPa = 30ft).
Correct answer is D – FL165
Q21. In the event that SELCAL is prescribed by an appropriate authority, in which section of the ATS flight plan will the SELCAL code be entered?
Correct answer is A – other information
Q22. The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles and time 30 minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt headwind?
Correct answer is A – 174 nm
Q23. When an ATS flight plan is submitted for a flight outside designated ATS routes, points included in Item 15 (route) should not normally be at intervals of more than :
Correct answer is A – 30 minutes flying time or 370 km
Q24. Turbo-jet ac, flying to an isolated airfield, with no destination alternative. On top of: taxi, trip and contingency fuel, what fuel is required?
Correct answer is A – 2 hours at normal cruise consumption
Q25. The air distance and time to climb is 197 nam and 33 min respectively. What is the required ground distance with a 40 kt headwind component ?
Correct answer is A – 175 ngm
Q26. A normal commercial IFR flight has an estimated EOBT of 1540 UTC with the estimated take-off time as 1555 UTC. What is the latest time for filing the ICAO Flight Plan?
Correct answer is A – 1440 UTC
Q27. *** Repetitive flight plans may be used for ______________ flights with a high degree of stability over same days of consecutive weeks on at least ________ occasions.
Correct answer is B – IFR, 10
Q28. For which flights are Flight Plans required? i). IFR flights. ii). IFR and VFR flights. iii). Flights crossing national boundaries. iv). Flights over water. v). Public transport flights.
Correct answer is C – i and iii
Q29. A repetitive flight plan (RPL) is filed for a scheduled flight: Paris-Orly to Angouleme, Paris-Orly as alternate. Following heavy snow falls, Angouleme airport will be closed at the expected time of arrival.The airline decides before departure to plan a re-routing of that flight to Limoges.
Correct answer is B – The RPL must be cancelled for that day and an individual flight plan must be filed.
Q30. You plan to fly from A to B at a TAS of 230 kt, a GS of 255 kt and an initial cruising pressure altitude of 15000 ft. What should you complete Item 15 of the ICAO Flight Plan?
Correct answer is B – N0230 F150
Q31. Which of the following statements regarding filing a flight plan is correct?
Correct answer is A – In case of flow control the flight plan should be filed at least three hours in advance of the time of departure.
Q32. In the ATS flight plan Item No 19, Emergency and survival equipment carried on the flight should be indicated by:
Correct answer is B – Crossing out the box to any equipment not carried.
Q33. In an ATS flight plan Item 15 (route), in terms of latitude and longitude, a significant point at 41°35′ north 4°15′ east should be entered as :
Correct answer is B – 4135N00415E
Q34. ** On the ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will be overflying the waypoint TANGO at 350 kts at flight level 280, you write:
Correct answer is B – TANGO/ N0350 F280
Q35. An aircraft has been planned to fly via a significant point based upon the TIR VORDME, QDM120 at range of 95nm. The correct entry for the ICAO Flight Plan is:
Correct answer is A – TIR300095
Q36. Item 7 of the flight plan in accordance with PANS-RAC (DOC 4444) should always include, for an aircraft equipped with a radio:
Correct answer is B – aircraft callsign
Q37. *** When an ATS Flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight, the flight plan should be amended or cancelled in the event of the Off-block time being delayed by:
Correct answer is C – 30 minutes or more.
Q38. ** In the ATS flight Plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470 kts will be entered as:
Correct answer is A – N0470
Q39. In the appropriate box of a flight plan, for endurance, one must indicate the time corresponding to:
Correct answer is B – the total usable fuel on board.
Q40. A flight from BIRMINGHAM (EGBB) to DUBLIN (EIDW) as an EOBT of 09:30 UTC Actual airborne time of 09:50, expected trip time of 1 hour, estimated flying time to SHANNON FIR (EISN) boundary of 55 minutes. How should you complete item 18 of the ICAO flight plan regarding your estimate for the FIR boundary?
Correct answer is A – EET/EISN0055
Q41. When completing an ATS flight plan for a flight commencing under IFR but possibly changing to VFR, the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be :
Correct answer is B – Y
Q42. In ATS flight plan item 10 ( standard Equipment ) is considered to be:
Correct answer is A – VHF RTF, ADF , VOR and ILS.
Q43. *** If the destination airport has no ICAO Indicator, In box 16 of your ATS flight plan, you write:
Correct answer is B – ZZZZ
Q44. On a flight plan you are required to indicate in the box marked SPEED the planned speed for first part of the cruise or for the entire cruise. This speed is :
Correct answer is A – the true airspeed.
Q45. In order to comply with PANS-RAC, during an IFR flight, deviations from flight plan particulars should be reported to ATC. Concerning TAS and time, the minimum deviations which must be reported are:
Correct answer is D – TAS 5% and time 3 minutes
Q46. In the Jeppesen SID, STARs & IAP directions are given as :
Correct answer is A – b. Magnetic Course/Track
Q47. When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given flight, one must take into account: 1. the wind 2. foreseeable airborne delays 3. other weather forecasts 4. any foreseeable conditions which may delay landing The combination which provides the correct statement is:
Correct answer is D – 1-2-3-4
Q48. In Item 9 of the ATS flight Plan includes NUMBER and TYPE OF AIRCRAFT. In this case, the number means:
Correct answer is A – the number of aircraft flying in a group.
Q49. *** For a repetitive Flight plan ( RPL ) to be used, Flight must take place on a regular basis on at least:
Correct answer is A – 10 Occasions.
Q50. Given: Track 185°(T) Variation 9° east Heading 182°(M) Which is the lowest suitable ICAO IFR cruising level ?
Correct answer is B – d. FL270
Q51. Given: Maximum Certificated take-off mass 137 000 kg Actual take-off mass 135 000 kg For item 9 of the ATS flight plan the wake turbulence category is:
Correct answer is B – H
Q52. ** Total Elapsed time for an IFR flight, when filling in ICAO flight plan at box 16, is the time elapsed from:
Correct answer is C – take off until landing.
Q53. **** A current Flight plan is a:
Correct answer is D – Filled flight plan with amendments and clearance included.
Q54. On a Jeppesen chart the figures “FL80 2700a” are displayed below an airway. What does the “FL80” indicate?
Correct answer is D – b. Minimum Enroute Altitude
Q55. *** In the ATS flight Plan, for non-scheduled flight which of following letters should be entered in item 8 ( type of flight ):
Correct answer is D – N
Q56. In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a “change of speed” is defined as:
Correct answer is D – 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more
Q57. *** On the ATC flight plan , An aircraft indicated as H or heavy:
Correct answer is A – is of the highest wake turbulence category.
Q58. Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan :
Correct answer is D – from takeoff to overhead destination.
Q59. In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the departure time entered is the :
Correct answer is B – estimated off-block time
Q60. **Your aircraft has a maximum Certified take off mass of 140,000 kg. Today your calculated takeoff mass is 130, 000kg. what letter should appear in the WAKE TURBULENCE CATEGORY on the flight form.
Correct answer is B – H
Q61. In an ATS flight plan Item 15, in order to define a position as a bearing and distance from a VOR, the group of figures should consist of :
Correct answer is A – VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in nautical miles
Q62. If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the ICAO flight plan, she must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination is informed within a specified time of her planned ETA at destination. The time is:
Correct answer is B – 30 mins
