Results
Q1. The principle of operation of firewire is:
Correct answer is – positive coefficient of capacitance, negative coefficient of resistance
Q2. What type of fire extinguisher would be used on a propane fire?
Correct answer is – Foam
Q3. On what principle do smoke detectors work?
Correct answer is – Optical and ionization
Q4. An ion detector detects:
Correct answer is – smoke
Q5. If an artificial feel unit were fitted it would be connected:
Correct answer is – in parallel with the primary controls
Q6. In a twin jet fuel system what is the function of a feeder box?
Correct answer is – To prevent pump cavitation
Q7. A twin jet aircraft would normally be refuelled by which of the following methods?
Correct answer is – Pressure refuelling
Q8. The fuel tanks of a modern passenger airliner are filled by:
Correct answer is – fuel is pumped in by the fuel truck
Q9. The purpose of a refuelling volumetric top off unit (VTO) is:
Correct answer is – to close the fuelling valve when the tank is full
Q10. Fuel tank booster pumps are:
Correct answer is – centrifugal pumps – Low pressure
Q11. The advantage of a float type fuel gauging system is: 1. simple 2. compensates for variations of SG 3. reads fuel quantity by mass 4. compensates for change of aircraft attitude
Correct answer is – 1 only
Q12. The function of the baffles in a fuel tank is:
Correct answer is – to prevent fuel surge (or sloshing) during manoeuvring
Q13. The function of baffle check valves in a fuel tank is:
Correct answer is – to prevent movement of fuel to the wingtip
Q14. A magneto is switched off by:
Correct answer is – grounding the primary circuit
Q15. An impulse coupling in a magneto is provided to:
Correct answer is – generate high voltage and retard the spark for starting
Q16. A turbosupercharger impeller is driven by:
Correct answer is – diversion of exhaust gases by the wastegate using energy that would otherwise have been wasted
Q17. A cylinder head temperature gauge measures:
Correct answer is – the temperature of the hottest cylinder
Q18. EPR is measured by the ratio of:
Correct answer is – exhaust pressure to low pressure compressor inlet pressure
Q19. Where is EGT measured?
Correct answer is – HP turbine outlet
Q20. In a bootstrap air conditioning system what is the first thing the air does?
Correct answer is – Goes through the primary heat exchanger, compressor then secondary heat exchanger
Q21. How are the loads on an aircraft busbar connected?
Correct answer is – They are in parallel so that current reduces through the busbar as loads are switched off
Q22. In a modern airliner what is the hydraulic fluid used?
Correct answer is – Synthetic
Q23. The correct extinguisher to use on a brake fire would be:
Correct answer is – dry powder
Q24. An aircraft is certified to fly higher than 25 000 ft and to carry a maximum of 240 passengers, it is configured to carry 200 and actually has 180 passengers on board. The minimum number of drop-down oxygen masks provided must be:
Correct answer is – 220
Q25. The passenger oxygen drop-down mask stowage doors are released:
Correct answer is – electrically for chemical oxygen generators and pneumatically for gaseous system
Q26. In a centrifugal compressor:
Correct answer is – the air enters the impeller axially at the eye and leaves at the periphery tangentially
Q27. What happens to pressure, temperature and velocity of the air in the diffuser of a centrifugal compressor?
Correct answer is – Velocity decrease, pressure and temperature increase
Q28. The type of smoke detection system fitted to aircraft is:
Correct answer is – optical and ionization
Q29. The flight deck warning on activation of an engine fire detection system is:
Correct answer is – warning light and warning bell
Q30. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized by:
Correct answer is – engine bleed air from turbine engine
Q31. The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to:
Correct answer is – prevent loss of system fluid if the pipeline to a brake unit should rupture
Q32. A shuttle valve will:
Correct answer is – automatically switch to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply
Q33. With regard to an air cycle type ECS pack, where is the water separator fitted?
Correct answer is – After the cold air unit turbine
Q34. In the event that an emergency decent causes the cabin pressure to decrease below ambient pressure:
Correct answer is – the inward relief valve will open
Q35. The purpose of a ditching control valve is:
Correct answer is – to close the outflow valves
Q36. In a bleed air anti-icing system the areas that are heated are:
Correct answer is – wing leading edges and slats
Q37. On a modern turboprop aircraft the method of anti-icing/de-icing the wings is:
Correct answer is – pneumatic boots
Q38. If an aircraft maximum operating altitude is limited by the pressure cabin, this limit is due to:
Correct answer is – the maximum positive pressure differential at maximum cabin altitude
Q39. Long haul aircraft are not used as short haul aircraft because:
Correct answer is – structures are given fatigue lives based on their use
Q40. The properties of Duralumin are: 1. aluminium/copper base 2. aluminium/magnesium base 3. hard to weld 4. easy to weld 5. good thermal conductivity 6. poor resistance to air corrosion
Correct answer is – 1, 3 and 5
Q41. An undercarriage leg is considered to be locked when:
Correct answer is – mechanically locked by an ‘over-centre’ mechanism
Q42. An underinflated tyre on a dry runway:
Correct answer is – increases wear on the shoulder
Q43. Kreuger flaps are positioned:
Correct answer is – at the wing inner leading edge
Q44. What are flaperons?
Correct answer is – Combined flap and ailerons
Q45. What is the purpose of inboard ailerons:?
Correct answer is – To reduce wing twist at high speed
Q46. What is the purpose of trim tabs?
Correct answer is – To reduce stick holding forces to zero
Q47. Smoke hoods protect:
Correct answer is – full face and provide a continuous flow of oxygen
Q48. Oxygen supplied to the flight deck is:
Correct answer is – gaseous, diluted with cabin air if required
Q49. If during pressurized flight the outflow valve closes fully due to a fault in the pressure controller the:
Correct answer is – safety valve opens when the differential pressure reaches structural max diff
Q50. In a fan jet engine the bypass ratio is:
Correct answer is – external mass airflow divided by internal mass airflow
Q51. The thrust reverser light illuminates on the flight deck annunciator when the:
Correct answer is – thrust reverser doors are unlocked
Q52. In very cold weather the pilot notices slightly higher than normal oil pressure on start up. This:
Correct answer is – is acceptable providing it returns to normal after start up.
Q53. If a fuel tank having a capacitive contents gauging system is empty of fuel but has a quantity of water in it:
Correct answer is – the gauge will show full scale high
Q54. In a four stroke engine, when the piston is at BDC at the end of the power stroke the position of the valves is:
Correct answer is – Inlet closed, Exhaust open
Q55. What is the effect on EGT and EPR if a bleed valve is opened?
Correct answer is – Increase, decrease
Q56. Refer to the diagram for a modern turbofan engine – where is fuel flow measured? (between HP SOV and Engine)
Correct answer is – a
Q57. Where is torque measured in a turboprop engine?
Correct answer is – Reduction gearbox
Q58. Propeller blade angle is:
Correct answer is – the angle between the blade chord and the plane of rotation
Q59. Why is a propeller blade twisted?
Correct answer is – To even out the thrust force along the length of the blade
Q60. For calculating resistances in parallel the formula is:
Correct answer is – $frac{1}{R_{T}}=frac{1}{R_{1}}+frac{1}{R_{2}}+frac{1}{R_{3}}$
Q61. When a fuse operates it is ___ and when a circuit breaker operates it is ___
Correct answer is – non re-settable / re-settable
Q62. A hot busbar is one that:
Correct answer is – is permanently connected to the battery
Q63. In an AC distribution system what is the purpose of the GCB?
Correct answer is – Connects a generator output to its load busbar
Q64. An aircraft which uses DC as the primary source of power, AC for the instruments may be obtained from:
Correct answer is – an inverter
Q65. Persistent over excitation of one generator field will cause:
Correct answer is – the GCB and exciter control relay to trip
Q66. When a battery is nearly discharged, the:
Correct answer is – voltage and current decrease
Q67. The state of charge of an aircraft battery on an aircraft with a voltmeter would be checked:
Correct answer is – on load
Q68. In a paralleled AC distribution system what regulates the real load?
Correct answer is – Torque from the CSDU (CSD)
Q69. If the oil temperature gauge of the CSD is in the red what would action is required?
Correct answer is – Disconnect, then when cooled reconnect
Q70. What is a transistorized static inverter in a DC circuit used for?
Correct answer is – Provide AC for instruments
Q71. If the load increases on a ‘constant speed AC generator’ what does the voltage regulator do?
Correct answer is – Increases field excitation
Q72. Incorrect bonding of the aircraft structure could cause:
Correct answer is – static on the radio
Q73. The characteristics of a Unipole system are: (1) Lighter (2) Easier fault finding (3) More likely to short circuit (4) Less likely to short circuit (5) It is not a single wire system
Correct answer is – 1, 2 and 3
Q74. The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon?
Correct answer is – the rpm and number of poles in the rotor
Q75. With an almost discharged battery there will be:
Correct answer is – a decrease of voltage with increasing load
Q76. When is an engine overheat firewire system activated:
Correct answer is – When an overheat affects both detector loops at a point anywhere along their length
Q77. In an air cycle air conditioning system what is the function of the ground-cooling fan?
Correct answer is – To draw cooling air over the heat exchangers
Q78. How do you control power in a jet engine?
Correct answer is – By controlling the fuel flow
Q79. In a normally aspirated piston engine carburettor icing can occur:
Correct answer is – only at less than $+10^{circ}C$ if there is visible moisture
Q80. In a gas turbine engine fuel system why is the fuel heater before the filter?
Correct answer is – To prevent water in the fuel freezing and blocking the filter
Q81. What is the purpose of the FCOC (Fuel-cooled Oil Cooler)?
Correct answer is – To heat the fuel and cool the oil
Q82. What is the purpose of the torque links in a landing gear leg?
Correct answer is – To prevent the wheel rotating around the leg
Q83. An artificial feel system is needed in the pitch channel if the:
Correct answer is – elevators are controlled through an irreversible servo system
Q84. Auto brakes are disengaged:
Correct answer is – by the pilot
Q85. In the diagram the landing gear arrangements shown are: (1), (2), (3), (4)
Correct answer is – 1. cantilever 2. fork 3. half fork 4. dual wheel
Q86. In an aircraft with a fuel dumping system it will allow fuel to be dumped:
Correct answer is – down to a predetermined safe value
Q87. What does ‘octane rating’ when applied to AVGAS refer to?
Correct answer is – The ability of the fuel to disperse water
Q88. How are modern passenger jet aircraft fuel tanks pressurized?
Correct answer is – By bleed air from the pneumatic system
Q89. Refering to the logic gate diagram: To get logic 1 output at A there must be a logic 1 input at:
Correct answer is – C1 and C2 only
Q90. In which of the following areas would an overheat/fire warning be provided?
Correct answer is – Wheel/undercarriage bay
Q91. An axial flow compressor when compared to a centrifugal compressor:
Correct answer is – takes in more air and is more prone to rupturing
Q92. Hydraulic pressure typically used in the system of large transport aircraft is:
Correct answer is – 3000-4000 psi
Q93. The EGT indication on a piston engine is used:
Correct answer is – to assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture
Q94. A gas turbine engine having a single spool, the compressor will rotate:
Correct answer is – at the same speed as the turbine
Q95. Because of its function an ‘AND’ gate may also be referred to as:
Correct answer is – all or nothing gate.
Q96. What type of hydraulic fluid is used in a modern passenger jet aircraft?
Correct answer is – Phosphate ester based
Q97. In a 4 stroke engine when does ignition occur in each cylinder?
Correct answer is – After TDC for starting and then before TDC every 2nd rotation of the crankshaft
Q98. When smoke appears in the cockpit, after donning the oxygen mask the pilot should select:
Correct answer is – emergency
Q99. Which part of the gas turbine engine limits the temperature?
Correct answer is – Turbine
Q100. What makes the non-rigid fittings of compressor and turbine blades rigid when the engine is running?
Correct answer is – Aerodynamic and centrifugal force
Q101. What ice protection system is used on most modern jet transport aircraft?
Correct answer is – Hot air
Q102. What frequency is commonly used in aircraft electrical distribution systems?
Correct answer is – 400 Hz
Q103. When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close?
Correct answer is – When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘off’ during engine shutdown
Q104. When does the Low Pressure fuel shut off valve close?
Correct answer is – When the fire handle is pulled
Q105. What voltage is supplied to booster pumps on a modern jet airliner?
Correct answer is – 200 V AC three phase
Q106. An engine having a ‘free turbine’:
Correct answer is – there is a mechanical connection between the power output shaft and the free turbine
Q107. If the pressure controller malfunctions during the cruise and the outflow valve opens what happens to: i) cabin ROC ii) cabin Alt iii) differential pressure
Correct answer is – i) increase ii) increase iii) decrease
Q108. What controls cabin pressurization?
Correct answer is – outflow valve
Q109. If the fire handle is pulled in an aeroplane with an AC generator system what disconnects?
Correct answer is – Exciter control relay and GCB
Q110. Which components constitute a crank assembly?
Correct answer is – crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods
Q111. One stage of an axial compressor:
Correct answer is – Comprises a rotor disc followed by a row of stators
Q112. If a CSD overheat warning is shown:
Correct answer is – the CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight
Q113. A new tyre with wear on the tread and parallel grooves:
Correct answer is – can be repaired several times
Q114. An emergency exit assisted escape device must be fitted if the door sill height is above:
Correct answer is – 6 ft with the aircraft on the landing gear with the nosewheel collapsed
Q115. In a compensated capacitance fuel contents system what happens to a fuel weight of 8000 lb if its volume increases by 5%?
Correct answer is – Remains the same
Q116. How do aircraft spoilers work?
Correct answer is – Upper surfaces only, symmetrical and asymmetrical operation
Q117. What is the total volume in the cylinder of a four stroke engine?
Correct answer is – Swept volume plus clearance volume
Q118. After the power stroke on a piston engine the poppet valve sequence is:
Correct answer is – inlet valve opens, exhaust valve closes, inlet valve closes
Q119. What speed does the LP compressor run at?
Correct answer is – The speed of the LP turbine
Q120. What happens to the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller as the aircraft accelerates down the runway?
Correct answer is – Decreases
Q121. What happens to the AoA of a VP propeller with increasing TAS if the rpm and throttle levers are not moved?
Correct answer is – Remains the same
Q122. Where are smoke detectors fitted?
Correct answer is – Toilets and cargo compartments B, C, E
Q123. What colour is the hydraulic liquid in a modern jet airliner?
Correct answer is – Purple
Q124. On what principle does a fuel flowmeter work?
Correct answer is – Quantity of movement
Q125. What is engine pressure ratio?
Correct answer is – The ratio of turbine outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure
Q126. On what principle does the fuel contents gauging system work on a modern large aircraft?
Correct answer is – Changes in dielectric causes changes in capacitance
Q127. What are the advantages of a nicad battery? 1. More compact. 2. Longer shelf life. 3. Even voltage over total range before rapid discharge. 4. Higher voltage than lead acid type.
Correct answer is – 1, 2 and 3
Q128. What would happen if the wastegate of a turbocharged engine seized in the descent?
Correct answer is – MAP may exceed its maximum permitted value in the induction manifold
Q129. When is spark plug fouling most likely to occur?
Correct answer is – In the climb if you have not adjusted the mixture
Q130. Why, in the bootstrap system, is the air compressed before it enters the heat exchanger?
Correct answer is – To ensure maximum pressure and temperature drop across the turbine
Q131. What is a ram air turbine (RAT) which drives a hydraulic pump used for?
Correct answer is – Flight controls in case of failure of the engine driven system
Q132. As altitude increases what does the mixture control do to the fuel flow?
Correct answer is – Reduces flow due to reduced air density
Q133. What is the coefficient of friction on an aquaplaning (hydroplaning) tyre?
Correct answer is – 0
Q134. What is the purpose of the diluter demand valve in the emergency oxygen system?
Correct answer is – To dilute oxygen with air in crew oxygen system
Q135. What limits the max. temperature in a gas turbine engine?
Correct answer is – Temperature at the turbine
Q136. What is the purpose of a surge box inside a fuel tank?
Correct answer is – Prevent sloshing of fuel away from pump inlet during abnormal manoeuvres
Q137. Emergency oxygen is provided by:
Correct answer is – two independent systems, one for flight deck, one for cabin
Q138. A 12 volt lead acid battery has a broken connection in a cell, the battery:
Correct answer is – is unserviceable
Q139. A changeover relay:
Correct answer is – allows an alternate source to supply an essential busbar
Q140. A relay is:
Correct answer is – an electrically operated switch
Q141. Fuel heaters are fitted:
Correct answer is – all of the above
Q142. The engine fire extinguisher system is activated:
Correct answer is – by the pilot when required
Q143. An unpressurized aircraft is flying above FL100 and therefore must have sufficient oxygen for:
Correct answer is – both pilots immediately and the cabin crew plus some passengers after 30 minutes above FL100 but below FL130
Q144. Aircraft above a certain capacity must carry a crash axe, it is provided to:
Correct answer is – enable access behind panels and soundproofing to aid fire fighting
Q145. The function of stringers in the construction of the fuselage is:
Correct answer is – to provide support for the skin and to absorb some of the pressurization strain as tensile loading
Q146. The requirement for an aircraft to have a fuel dumping system is:
Correct answer is – aircraft whose maximum landing mass (MLM) is significantly lower than its maximum take-off mass (MTOM)
Q147. At what height is it mandatory for one of the flight deck crew to wear an oxygen mask?
Correct answer is – 41 000 ft
Q148. A Volumetric Top-off unit (VTO), is provided in a fuel system to:
Correct answer is – allow a main feed tank to be maintained at a predetermine level automatically, while being fed from an auxiliary tank
Q149. The type of engine layout shown on page 430 is:
Correct answer is – free turbine
Q150. The precautions to be taken during refuelling are:
Correct answer is – all earthing of aircraft parts to ground equipment must be completed before filler caps are removed
Q151. What prevents an impulse coupling operating at speeds above start speed, considering that it has flyweights?
Correct answer is – Centrifugal force
Q152. What type of fire extinguisher must be on a flight deck?
Correct answer is – Halon
Q153. In a Bramah press one piston has an area of $0.05~m^{2}$ and has a force of 10 N acting on it. If the area of the second piston is $0.5~m^{2}$, what force will it produce?
Correct answer is – 100 N
Q154. What is the reason for putting the horizontal stabilizer on top of the fin?
Correct answer is – To be out of the way of the wing down wash
Q155. Where are thermal plugs fitted?
Correct answer is – Wheel rim
Q156. In a non-stressed skin aircraft, bending loads acting on the wings are taken by:
Correct answer is – spars
Q157. In a stressed skin aircraft, bending loads acting on the wings are taken by:
Correct answer is – spars and skin
Q158. Hydraulic fluid:
Correct answer is – is harmful to eyes and skin, and is also a fire hazard
Q159. In a modern carburettor, mixture is controlled via:
Correct answer is – fuel flow
Q160. The demand valve of a diluter demand oxygen regulator in normal mode operates when:
Correct answer is – user breathes in
Q161. Torque links on an undercarriage come under most stress:
Correct answer is – when making tight turns when taxiing
Q162. If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate:
Correct answer is – climb
Q163. The battery in a search and rescue beacon (SARB) should last for:
Correct answer is – 48 hours
Q164. A shuttle valve is used to:
Correct answer is – allow two supplies to be available to a service
Q165. The temperature of hydraulic fluid is measured:
Correct answer is – in the reservoir
Q166. Electrical heating devices:
Correct answer is – are used for preventing ice on small areas (e.g. pitot head, windscreen only)
Q167. Reverse thrust lights come on when:
Correct answer is – reverser doors are unlocked
Q168. The magnetos are switched off and the engine continues to run normally. The cause of this fault is:
Correct answer is – grounding wire from magneto being broken
Q169. An aircraft is to fly at 29 000 ft. When should the oxygen briefing take place?
Correct answer is – Before take-off
Q170. What is the purpose of the magneto impulse coupling?
Correct answer is – To give a retarded spark during starting
Q171. The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at:
Correct answer is – 10000 ft
Q172. The ‘torsion box’ of a modern aircraft wing structure consists of:
Correct answer is – spars, skin, stringers and ribs
Q173. A device in a hydraulic system which acts in the same way as a diode in an electrical circuit is a:
Correct answer is – one way check valve
Q174. What does three green lights represent when the landing gear is selected down?
Correct answer is – The gear is down and locked
Q175. Which is the correct statement regarding a large aircraft fitted with both inboard and outboard ailerons?
Correct answer is – The inboard ailerons are used only when the flaps are retracted
Q176. How do differential ailerons work?
Correct answer is – Equalize the drag on up going and down going wings
Q177. What is the effect of heating flight deck windows?
Correct answer is – To protect the windows against bird strike and ice formation
Q178. If an aircraft suffers decompression what happens to the indications on a cabin VSI, cabin altimeter and differential pressure gauge?
Correct answer is – VSI up, altimeter up, differential pressure gauge down
Q179. What happens if a gaseous oxygen cylinder is over-pressurized?
Correct answer is – A pressure regulator will prevent the excess pressure damaging the system
Q180. If a fuel sample appears cloudy, this is:
Correct answer is – an indication of water in the fuel
Q181. Fuel tanks accumulate moisture, the most practical way to limit this in an aircraft flown daily is to:
Correct answer is – fill the tank after each flight
Q182. How much fuel can be jettisoned?
Correct answer is – A specified amount must remain
Q183. The DLL of a transport aircraft is:
Correct answer is – 2.5g
Q184. A current limiter fuse:
Correct answer is – has a high melting point so carrying a considerable current overload before rupturing
Q185. What type of electrical motor is used as a starter motor?
Correct answer is – Series
Q186. The power for LP fuel pumps is:
Correct answer is – 200 V AC
Q187. What is a relay?
Correct answer is – Magnetic switch
Q188. An aircraft is in straight and level flight at a constant cabin altitude when the crew notice the rate of climb indicator reads $-200~ft/min$. What will be the sequence of events?
Correct answer is – Cabin altitude will descend to, and continue beyond normal max. diff., at which point the safety valves will open
Q189. What is the frequency band for ADF?
Correct answer is – Hectometric and kilometric
